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Best CSAT Coaching for UPSC
About the program.
UPSC Essay paper is one paper where you can get more output with little effort with the right strategy. The right strategy consists a clear structure, right thesis, better practice and the best guidance.
Keeping this in mind, Vision IAS has created a unique Essay Enrichment Programme for civil services. This programme would consist of 5 classes in all. Each class will have pre-decided themes and will focus on aspects that will eventually help students in writing a good Essay.
Why Choose our Program?
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Essay Writing for UPSC - Weekly Essay Writing Programme
by Vajiram & Ravi
Essay Writing for UPSC: Writing an essay for the UPSC Mains Exam requires a structured and well-organised approach. The UPSC essay paper is not just limited to assessing a candidate's creative writing skills, but rather, the focus is on evaluating a candidate's ability to think critically, express their ideas clearly, and present a balanced perspective on various issues. This article discusses the do’s and don'ts that need to be remembered while writing your Essay for the UPSC Mains Exam.
Check: UPSC CSE Mains 2023 Essay Question Paper
Essay Writing for UPSC
The UPSC Mains Examination comprises a total of nine papers, inclusive of an essay paper. The Essay Paper is categorised into sections A and B, each containing four topics. These topics hold a value of 125 marks each, thereby totalling 250 marks (125×2). Candidates are required to choose one topic from each section and compose an essay spanning 1,000 to 1,200 words within the allocated three-hour duration. UPSC provides the following guidelines in its Notification on the Essay Paper:
- Candidates may be required to write essays on multiple topics.
- They will be expected to keep closely to the subject of the essay to arrange their ideas in orderly fashion and to write concisely.
- Credit will be given for effective and exact expression.
Essay Writing for UPSC - What is Expected?
When preparing for the UPSC Mains Essay Paper, there are a few basic points that you should remember. The paper tests the diversity of your content and not its creativity .
When writing your Essay Paper for the UPSC Mains Exam, your focus should be on the following points-
- Diversity of the content: Incorporating diverse content in the essay paper not only enriches the content but also showcases your depth of knowledge, analytical skills, and ability to present a comprehensive perspective on complex topics.
- Focus on the topic: Centre your essay around the core theme of the chosen topic. By maintaining a clear focus on the topic and consistently reinforcing its relevance, your essay becomes a well-structured and compelling piece that effectively communicates your ideas to the examiner.
- Clarity, Depth, and Language: Language plays a crucial role in conveying your ideas effectively. Use precise and simple language to articulate your points and maintain a formal and coherent tone throughout the essay. Focusing on clarity of thought ensures that your ideas are easily understood by the examiner, and providing an in-depth analysis supported by relevant examples, data, and arguments, helps showcase your ability to engage with the topic critically.
- Providing Evidence: While stating a Quote, there should be evidence to support your thought. This helps you to avoid the superficial treatment of the subject and delve into its complexities, showcasing your ability to engage with the topic critically.
How to Write Essay for UPSC Mains?
Writing an essay for the UPSC Mains Exam requires a structured and well-organised approach.
Choose the Right Topic
Read the given UPSC essay topics carefully and choose the one that resonates with your strengths and interests. Pick a topic that allows you to showcase your knowledge and understanding effectively.
Brainstorm Ideas
Spend some time brainstorming ideas related to the chosen topic. Jot down key points, arguments, examples, and relevant data that you could use to support your essay.
Create a Structure
A well-structured essay has a clear introduction, body paragraphs, and a conclusion. Your introduction should introduce the topic and provide a brief overview of your stance. Each body paragraph should focus on a specific point, argument, or example. The conclusion should summarise your main points and reiterate your thesis.
Format for UPSC Essay Writing
The UPSC essay format requires a thoughtful approach to convey your ideas effectively. There are three stages or steps in any essay - Introduction, Body paragraphs, and Conclusion.
Introduction Paragraph of an Essay
Craft a strong introduction paragraph that outlines your main argument or perspective. This paragraph should be concise and provide a roadmap for your essay. You can begin your essay with a quote, and the last line of the introduction paragraph should end with reinforcing the main topic.
For example: Topic: The Health of the Nation is more important than the Wealth of Nation
Start your essay with a quote-
“P ublic Health depends upon winning over Hearts and Minds. It's not enough to just have a good policy; you have to convince people to actually follow it .”
In a country's journey forward, we often talk about how having a lot of money is crucial. But there's another side to this story, which says that the good health of the people in a country is even more vital. If there is something that COVID-19 has taught us, it is how no economy with ample amounts of money can guarantee the health of its nation and how the health of its citizens eventually affects the wealth of the country. This idea highlights how the health of the nation is more important than the wealth of the nation.
Writing in Paragraphs
Writing in paragraphs is important in an essay because it enhances readability and organisation. Each paragraph should focus on a specific idea, argument, or point, making it easier for readers to follow the logical flow of your thoughts . Paragraphs create visual breaks, helping to structure your essay into manageable sections. The following points have to be kept in mind while framing your Essay Paragraphs:
Address Counter-arguments:
Acknowledge potential counter-arguments and address them in your essay. This shows that you have considered multiple perspectives and strengthened your argument.
Use Examples:
Incorporate real-life examples, case studies, and anecdotes to illustrate your points. Examples make your essay more relatable and persuasive.
Gather Evidence:
Collect relevant current affairs facts, statistics, historical examples, and real-life incidents to support your arguments. Ensure that your evidence is accurate and well-researched.
Logical Flow:
Maintain a logical flow between paragraphs and ideas. Each paragraph should transition smoothly to the next, creating a coherent narrative.
Use of simple Language:
Write in a clear, concise, and coherent manner. Avoid using overly complex language that might obscure your message. Focus on communicating your ideas effectively.
Avoid Repetition:
Be mindful of repeating the same points or ideas. Each paragraph should contribute something new to the discussion.
Conclusion of the Essay
The conclusion serves the purpose of providing a seamless ending to the essay. It's worth noting that a strong ending holds the same level of significance as a compelling beginning. Both aspects contribute to achieving higher scores.
To effectively conclude an essay, you can utilise various elements, including facts, statistics, reasons, examples, quotes, opinions, experiences, and sensory details . The essay's conclusion can take on several forms: it might involve briefly reiterating the main points, suggesting potential future steps or actions, or injecting an engaging personal comment or relevant anecdote.
An alternative approach to concluding an essay involves revisiting the topic introduced in the introduction. This is known as a 'cyclic return,' and it's a straightforward method employed in many essays to bring the discussion full circle.
Ultimately, a conclusion should carry a positive perspective, seeking out the silver lining amidst challenges. It should also strive for clarity and brevity, ensuring the ideas are expressed concisely.
Proofread and Revise the Essay
Once you've finished writing, take some time to proofread and revise your essay. Check for grammatical errors, spelling mistakes, and clarity of expression.
Vajiram & Ravi Essay Module
Our Essay Course,by Mr. Brijendra, offers a comprehensive platform to master essay writing, guiding aspirants through the demanding path of UPSC Civil Services Exam preparation.
Course Objectives:
- Enhance Competency: Develop proficiency across diverse and essential themes.
- Strengthen Understanding: Utilize provided handouts containing all pertinent information essential for crafting quality essays.
- Refine Writing Proficiency: Improve language, grammar, and flow through two specialized classes.
- Evaluate Proficiency: Assess skills with a thorough test series.
This meticulously designed Essay Course assists students in structuring their essay preparation and cultivating a crucial set of skills to enhance their chances of securing high scores. Clear, concise, and well-structured essays are indispensable for aspiring civil servants, and mastery of essential elements of essay writing is paramount.
Through this course, students will:
- Organize and articulate ideas clearly.
- Analyze primary sources with critical insight.
- Apply critical thinking to evaluate information.
Course Features:
- Comprehensive Classes: 11 sessions covering various themes used for framing essay topics.
- Well-Curated Handouts: Concise handouts on each theme providing exam-ready content.
- Special Emphasis: Focus on philosophical and quote-based essays.
- Mini-Assignments: In-class assignments to master the nuances of essay writing.
- Simulated Writing Practice: 6 tests (2 half-length and 4 full-length) for exam-like practice.
- Detailed Evaluation: Objective evaluation of essay scripts with exhaustive feedback.
- Guidance and Support: Post-test guidance for individual doubt clarification.
This comprehensive essay writing course is designed to equip you with the skills and knowledge necessary to excel in the essay component of the UPSC Civil Services Examination. Join us to enhance your essay writing skills and significantly boost your chances of success in the UPSC Civil Services Exam.
© 2024 Vajiram & Ravi. All rights reserved
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UPSC IAS (Mains) Exam / 05 Jan 2024
Free Study Material - UPSC (Paper - I: Essay) IAS Mains Exam
Syllabus: (Paper-I: Essay)
Q. sunrise industries: can this be the next big thing for india, structure of the essay:, introduction:.
- The meaning of sunrise industry should be clarified with a lucid example.
- Do give an idea of what all is going to come in the body of the essay.
- Also clarify your stand to the question asked in the topic.
- Mention various sunrise industries in Indian context.
- Briefly explain in each case why it is apt to classify it as Sunrise industry.
- Discuss the futuristic importance of each one of them in the Indian context.
- Mention the possible threats to Indian economy due to the sunrise industries.
- If your stand is that it’s the next big thing, then do negate those threats.
- Mention the bottlenecks for these Sunrise industries.
Conclusion:
- Write down the measures that need to be taken by various actors viz. government, civil society, citizenry to fully reap the potential of sunrise industries.
Content of the Essay:
Definition of Sunrise industry:
Sunrise industry is a colloquial term for a burgeoning sector or business that is just in its infancy but shows promise of a rapid boom. It generally has plenty of “buzz” surrounding them as public awareness about the sector increases and investors get attracted to its long-term growth prospects. Examples include e-commerce, cloud computing etc.
Characteristics of Sunrise Industry:
1. High growth rates 2. Numerous start-ups 3. High degree of innovation 4. Abundance of venture capital funding. Various Sunrise Industry in India
1. E-Commerce – e-commerce encompasses a range of economic activities such as retail, travel, tourism, food and beverages etc. It is going to be driven by growing Internet population, smartphones access and increased online shoppers.
2. IT Industry - Global technology spend will increase, not decrease in future, and this will create a lot more opportunities for the Indian IT industry. According to Nasscom, The Indian IT industry is likely to grow 7-9 per cent in next decade. There is going to be a net addition of nearly 1.5 lakh jobs to the industry every year.
3. Food processing Industry - In today’s world, time has become extremely precious, and a fast-paced world has got habituated, in fact, addicted, to a ready-made culture. Thus, growing youth population, which is also going to be more urban, is more likely to shift to Ready to Eat Food.
Further, The food processing industry connects the farmers with their consumers, adding value on the way.
According to reports, during 2009-13, India’s exports of processed food and related products increased at a compounded annual growth rate of 21.9% to $36.1 billion. Further, the Indian food industry is estimated to grow to about $200 billion by 2015.
Mega Food Parks have set a great precedent for public-private partnerships where the private sector invests in infrastructure, while the government brings in technology and knowledge to help farmers earn reasonably, without suffering losses.
4. Tourism – Diversity of culture, varied geographical and climatic conditions provides immense opportunity for tourism sector in India. Realising this, the government has also started schemes like Swadesh Darshan, which has prepared thematic tourism circuits like Ramayana circuit.
5. Cloud Computing - Cloud Computing and its increasing usage among Indian enterprises is expected to create over a million new jobs by 2022. Its annual growth is forecast at 17 per cent. It facilititates other sectors of the economy as well by permitting an increase in IT innovation, which, in turn, supports business innovation that leads to accelerated development schedules, faster project completion, shorter time to market for new products, and lower operational costs.
6. New and Renewable Energy – Under INDC, India has pledged to increase the share of non-fossil fuels to 40% in its energy mix by 2030. India has set an ambitious target of 175 GW of renewable energy by 2022. Certain other newer source of energy like hyderogen fuel, biofuel are also witnessing high level of research and they can be the next big thing in fuel basket.
7. Electric Mobility – E-Rickshaw has already started replacing conventional rickshaw in most of the cities across India. Government of India targets to completely shift to electric vehicles by 2030 under FAME India Mission. This industry is also driven by increasing level of air pollution in various Indian cities.
Threats from Sunrise Industry:
1. Its rapid emergence may push into obsolescence a competing industry sector that is already in decline. E.g. e-commerce can make brick and mortar shops obsolete. 2. Structural Unemployment – Any sunrise industry shall require a new skill set and the people from competing industry may lose job as there would be a mismatch between the skills they posses and skills required in these new industries. 3. Life Style Changes could be detrimental –e.g. Processed food could be tastier but less nutritious. Smartphones and other IT revolutions may induce sedentry life style.
Bottlenecks for sunrise Industry:
1. Viability - The buzz they generate at the onset may be based largely on speculation for the possibilities the industry represents, rather than any tangible business activity. E.g. mobile industry remained unviable for a major part of second half of 20th century.
2. Short Life Cycyle – e.g. The compact-disc industry, which was a sunrise industry in 1990s, but it became sunset industry within a decade.
3. Failure to Meet global standard - e.g. lack of phytosanitary measures in Indian food processing industry.
4. Chalta Hai Culture of India – “Old habbits die hard”. Sunrise Industries will require new set of standards and skills.
5. Poor Quality of Higher Education – None of our universitities feature in global top 100 universities list. Around 80% of our engineering graduates are not employable. So, there is lack of skilled workforce to be employed in fast changing sunrise industry.
6. Lack of Digital Infrastructure – Most of the sunrise industries are related to digital infrastruture in one way or another. Internet Penetration in rural India is still as low as 20%.
7. Lack of Physical Infrastructure – It makes trade and logistics costly in India. E.g. logistics consists 25% of the cost of manufacturing firm in India while it is lesss than 15% in case of China.
8. Complicated Legal Structure – e.g. Flipkart was first forced to shift its headquarter to Singapore and then it was sold to a Walmart. Lack of autonomy in operating ecommerce business is being considered a prime reason for this exit.
Steps Needed:
1. By Government
- Infrastructure – Road, Rail, Ports are facilitator to any industry.
- Quality Education – We need world class universitites to avoid brain drain and also provide skilled workforce to sunrise industries in India.
- Ease of doing business – Although we have improved 30 points n World Banks ease of doing business ranking in 2017, we still perform very poorly in many areas like contract enforcement.
2. By Corporates
- Skill Training to Youths – Indian IT industry measures like Infosys and TCS has adopted inhouse training model to create the skilled workforce needed for IT industry. Other Sunrise industries needs to do the same.
- Venture Capital Investment – Venture capitalists needs to support entrepreneurs in these sunrise industries
- R&D – Companies in India need to invest more in R&D because most of the sunrise industries are based on latest tools and technologies.
3. Citizenry
- We need to be progressive towards latest scinetific developments.
- We need to ward off “chalta hai” culture
- Human Resource Development should be a priority in every household.
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UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | November 03 to November 09, 2024
Brush up your current affairs knowledge with this week's top 15 questions and consolidate your upsc-cse preparation. find answers along with explanations..
UPSC Weekly Quiz is a current affairs-based quiz on relevant topics from the past week, curated for the aspirants of competitive examinations. Attempt the weekly quiz every Saturday and find answers to the MCQs with explanations.
🚨 The Indian Express UPSC Essentials brings to you the October issue of its monthly magazine. Click Here to read. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at [email protected]🚨
With reference to the PM-Vidyalaxmi scheme, consider the following statements:
1. The scheme makes students who get admission in Quality Higher Education Institutions (QHEIs) eligible for a collateral-free and guarantor-free education loan.
2. Students would be provided a 25% credit guarantee by the central government for loans up to Rs 7.5 lakh.
3. The interest subvention support will be given to 1 lakh students every year.
4. The scheme will be applicable only to the government institutions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Explanation
— The Union Cabinet approved the PM-Vidyalaxmi scheme that makes students who get admission in Quality Higher Education Institutions (QHEIs) eligible for a collateral-free and guarantor-free education loan. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— An outlay of Rs 3,600 crore has been made for the scheme for 2024-25 to 2030-31 period and around 7 lakh fresh students are expected to benefit from the interest subvention offered under the scheme.
— Students will be provided a 75% credit guarantee by the central government for loans up to Rs 7.5 lakh. Students, with an annual family income of up to Rs 8 lakh, who are ineligible for benefits under any other government scholarship or interest subvention schemes, will be provided 3% interest subvention for loan up to Rs 10 lakh during the moratorium period. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
— “Each year, 1 lakh students will receive interest subvention support. Students from government institutions who choose technical and professional courses will be given preference, according to a government statement. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
— This is in addition to an existing plan, the Central Sector Interest Subsidy (CSIS), which offers complete interest subsidy on loans up to Rs 10 lakh to students with an annual family income of up to Rs 4.5 lakh who are pursuing technical or professional courses.
— The NIRF rankings will determine quality higher education institutions (QHEIs). The program will be available to all institutions, both public and private. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the comparison between airships and aircraft, consider the following statements:
1. Aircrafts are lighter than airships.
2. Aircrafts are faster than airships in terms of speed.
3. Airships use more fuel to move the same mass of material as compared to aircrafts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
— Airships were the first aircraft capable of controlled powered flight and were thought to be the future of travel for some years in the early 20th century . However, fundamental technological shortcomings and the rapid development of aeroplanes killed the idea of airship transport.
— Airships are lighter-than-air aircraft that are lifted by gas with a density lower than atmospheric gases. This principle also operates in helium balloons. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
— Early airships employed hydrogen as a lifting gas since it was inexpensive, easy to create, and the lightest gas available. But hydrogen was also quite combustible. Several high-profile catastrophes, including the tragic Hindenburg disaster in 1937, damaged public trust in airships.
— The majority of modern airships use helium, which is non-combustible. However, helium is uncommon on Earth and consequently extremely expensive – 1 cubic metre, the amount of gas required to raise one kilogramme of weight, costs approximately $35.
— While aeroplanes significantly outperform airships in terms of speed , airships may theoretically be perfect goods vehicles because of their exceptional “lift-to-drag ratio” – which means they need far less fuel to convey the same mass of material. Hence, statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: India’s current climate policies are projected to reduce carbon dioxide emissions by around four billion tonnes between 2020 and 2030.
Statement 2: Policies promoting renewable energy are expected to drive a 24-per cent decline in coal-based electricity generation by 2030.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.
— According to a new analysis , India’s current climate policies are expected to reduce carbon dioxide emissions by around four billion tonnes between 2020 and 2030, as well as generate a 24 percent drop in coal-based power generation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— This is significant given that the rapidly rising South Asian country, now the world’s fifth-largest economy, pledged to lower emissions by one billion tonnes by 2030 at COP26 in Glasgow.
— According to a study conducted by the Delhi-based independent think tank Council on Energy, Environment, and Water (CEEW), measures in India’s electricity, residential, and transport sectors saved 440 million tonnes of carbon dioxide (MtCO2) between 2015 and 2020.
— According to the paper, in the power sector alone, policies favouring renewable energy are predicted to generate a 24% decrease in coal-based electricity output by 2030, compared to a no-policy scenario. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
— According to CEEW, this equates to avoiding the construction of 80 GW of coal-fired power plants that would otherwise have been built to meet India’s growing electricity demand. India currently generates approximately 71% of its electricity from coal.
Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
The Chabahar Port was recently in the news. It is nearest to:
(a) Port of Salalah
(b) Gwadar Port
(c) Kandla Port
(d) Shuwaikh Port
— An Indian delegation headed by a senior Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) official met Afghanistan’s interim Defence Minister Mullah Mohammad Yaqoob , offering the use of Chabahar Port in Iran to business groups in Afghanistan, while also holding discussions on extending more humanitarian assistance to Kabul.
— Chabahar is of strategic importance to both Iran and India. It can potentially help Tehran ward off the effect of Western sanctions, and offers New Delhi an alternative route that bypasses Pakistan, which does not allow India land access for trade with Afghanistan and Central Asia.
— Chabahar, which sits at the mouth of the Gulf of Oman, is Iran’s first deepwater port that puts the country on the global oceanic trade route map.
— The distance of Chabahar Port to various other ports:
(i) Port of Salalah: 719 nautical miles.
(ii) Gwadar Port: 76 nautical miles
(iii) Kandla Port: 550 nautical miles
(iv) Shuwaikh Port: 537 nautical miles
The first Integrated Check Post (ICP) was inaugurated at Darranga in Assam along:
(a) India-Bangladesh border
(b) India-Nepal border
(c) India-Myanmar border
(d) India-Bhutan border
— The f irst Integrated Check Post (ICP) along the India-Bhutan border was launched in Darranga, Assam, according to officials.
— Assam Governor Lakshman Prasad Acharya inaugurated the ICP in the presence of Bhutanese Prime Minister Dasho Tshering Tobgay.
— ICP Darranga, which covers 14.5 acres and is roughly 700 metres from the India-Bhutan border, has cutting-edge facilities such as an office building, parking grounds, loading and unloading zones, a weighbridge, a warehouse, and residential quarters for personnel.
— Darranga’s advantageous location is further enhanced by its connection.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Recently, ten elephants died at Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve after consuming kodo millet plants due to the presence of:
(a) Oxalic acid
(b) Poison hemlock
(c) Cyclopiazonic acid
(d) Glycoalkaloids
— According to the toxicological study for the ten elephants who died at Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve, they ate a “large quantity” of kodo millet plants infected with a fungus .
— The lab tested samples from the elephants’ liver, kidney, spleen, heart, lungs, stomach, and intestinal contents.
— “Presence cyclopiazonic acid was detected in all pooled samples. Approximate concentration of cyclopiazonic acid detected in the sample was above 100 ppb. Further screening of all the samples is being made to estimate the exact concentration… The results indicate that the elephants might have consumed large quantities of kodo plant/grains,” the report read.
— The paper recommends the “survey and destruction of the fungal infected kodo crop residue as well as avoiding the entry of domestic and wild animals into such fields”
— According to a 2023 study named ‘Potential Risk of Cyclopiazonic Acid Toxicity in Kodua Poisoning’ published in the Journal of Scientific and Technical Research, kodo millet is primarily grown in dry and semi-arid environments. However, occasionally “environmental conditions like spring and summer strike as being suitable for a certain kind of poisoning, which leads to greater economic crop loss”.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following cases:
1. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v Union of India
2. Shafin Jahan v Union of India
3. Government of NCT of Delhi v Union of India
4. Property Owners Association and ors v State of Maharashtra and Ors
In how many of the above cases did the Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud gave landmark judgements?
— As this week marks Justice D. Y. Chandrachud’s final days as the 50th Chief Justice of India . The most significant decisions and developments in the Supreme Court during his tenure, in which he has played a crucial role since his elevation to the Supreme Court in May 2016 are:
— Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v Union of India (Right to Privacy Case): In this verdict, Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, along with all the other members of the Bench, explicitly overruled the Emergency-era judgment in the case of ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (April 28, 1976). It is notable that Justice Chandrachud’s father, Y.V. Chandrachud, was part of the majority on the Bench that had previously ruled that the fundamental right to life was a gift of the Constitution and could be suspended during an Emergency.
— Shafin Jahan v Union of India ( Hadiya case): In the famous Hadiya case, the Supreme Court said that “The right to marry a person of one’s choice is integral to Article 21 (right to life and liberty) of the Constitution”, and set aside a 2017 order of the Kerala High Court which annulled the marriage of Kerala Muslim convert girl Hadiya and Shefin Jahan.
— Government of NCT of Delhi v Union of India: In this case, the question of the regulation of services was a major part of the overall dispute between the elected government in Delhi and the Lieutenant Governor (LG) nominated by the Centre. In its verdict, the 5-judge constitution bench, headed by Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud, held that the legislature has control over bureaucrats in administration of services, except in areas outside the legislative powers of the National Capital Territory (NCT). There are three areas outside the control of Delhi government: public order, police and land.
— Property Owners Association and ors v State of Maharashtra and Ors: In verdict, Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud wrote for the majority ruling for himself, and Justices Hrishikesh Roy, J.B. Pardiwala, Manoj Misra, Rajesh Bindal, Satish Chandra Sharma and Augustine George Masih; Justice BV Nagarathna penned a concurring opinion while Justice Sudhanshu Dhulia dissented.
Consider the following statements about minority educational institution (MEI):
1. Under Article 30(1), all minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
2. Under Article 15(5), MEIs are exempt from providing reservations for SCs and STs.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
— A seven-judge Bench of the Supreme Court laid down in a 4-3 majority verdict a “holistic and realistic” test to determine the “minority character” of an educational institution , but left the factual determination on AMU to a smaller Bench.
— In 1967, the Supreme Court in S. Azeez Basha v Union of India held that AMU was neither established nor administered by the Muslim minority — it came into existence through an Act of the central legislature — and did not, therefore, qualify as a minority institution under Article 30 of the Constitution.
— In 1981, the government amended the AMU Act, 1920, to say that the institution was established by the Muslim community to promote the cultural and educational advancement of Muslims in India.
— In 2005, AMU provided 50% reservation for Muslims in postgraduate medical programs. In 2006, the Allahabad HC struck down both the university order and the 1981 amendment on the grounds that AMU was not a minority institution as per Azeez Basha.
— This judgement was challenged at the SC, and in 2019 the matter was referred to a seven-judge Bench.
— Under Article 30(1), all minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Under Article 15(5), MEIs are exempt from providing reservations for SCs and STs. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
— Minority status also allows educational institutions to exercise greater control over their day-to-day administration — from student admissions (they can reserve up to 50% seats for minority students) to the hiring of teaching and non-teaching staff.
Which among the following personalities has discovered X-radiation (x-rays)?
(a) Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen
(b) Joseph John Thomson
(c) Ernest Rutherford
(d) James Chadwick
— On the evening of November 8, 1895, Wilhem Conrad Röntgen was working in his laboratory at the University of Würzburg in Germany when he discovered an unusual discovery .
— While researching how cathode ray tubes create light, Röntgen became distracted by a brilliant fluorescent screen, which he assumed was too far away from the tube to be impacted by cathode rays. He spent the next six weeks in his lab, trying to figure out what was making the screen light.
— Röntgen discovered that the interaction of cathode rays on the glass vacuum tube created a “new kind of invisible ray” with incredible penetrative force, which could be captured on photographic plates. He placed several materials between the cathode ray tube and the screen, ranging from paper and cardboard to wood, copper, and aluminium, and discovered that these invisible rays continued to reach the screen behind, albeit to varying degrees.
— On December 28, he published a ten-page study titled “On a New Kind of Rays” in the Proceedings of the Würzburg Physical-Medical Society. In it, he dubbed his discovery “X-radiation” (x-ray for short), after the mathematical term ‘X’, which represents anything unknown.
QUESTION 10
1. Mon, Noklak, Shamator, and Tuensang are the districts of this state.
2. This state is home to members of — Konyak, Khiamniungan, Chang, Sangtam, Tikhir, Phom, and Yimkhiung tribes.
3. This state has only 60 seats in its Legislative Assembly.
The above mentioned statements refer to which state?
(a) Tripura
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Nagaland
— The Nagaland government stated that it was ready to forward its comments on the Centre’s draft Memorandum of Settlement on an arrangement for greater autonomy for the state’s six eastern districts.
— Eastern Nagaland refers to the six eastern districts of the state: Kiphire, Longleng, Mon, Noklak, Shamator, and Tuensang. These districts are home to members of seven tribes — Konyak, Khiamniungan, Chang, Sangtam, Tikhir, Phom, and Yimkhiung — and account for more than 30% of the state’s population. They also account for 20 of the 60 seats in the Assembly.
— The demand for an independent state of Nagaland’s eastern districts has long persisted. It began more than a decade ago, when the influential Eastern Nagaland People’s Organisation (ENPO) sent a memorandum to the Prime Minister’s Office in November 2010. Due to a “development deficit” in the region, the group requested a separate state with special status and provisions. The lack of development in the region has continued to fuel the demand for a separate state.
QUESTION 11
The Bibek Debroy Committee was associated with:
(a) Tax structure
(b) Capital Goods
(c) Indian Railways
(d) Indian Private Sector Banks
— Bibek Debroy , who died late last week, had a strong interest in railways.
— The landmark report of the 2015 expert committee on Railway Reforms , led by the late economist Bibek Debroy, cleared the way for a complete overhaul of the national transporter to achieve operational viability and regain competitiveness in the transport market.
— Some of the recommendations have been implemented, such as the elimination of the separate Rail Budget , the redesignation of the Chairman of the Railway Board as Chief Executive Officer (CEO), and a plan to give General Managers (GMs) and Divisional General Managers (DRMs) more authority to make “independent” decisions; however, the overarching recommendation on “liberalisation” of Indian Railways has yet to be implemented.
— The Debroy committee made a major recommendation: empower field officers. General Managers (GMs), Divisional Railway Managers (DRMs), and Branch executives have been granted authority. Along with this, the committee advised that technology be integrated and synergised in railways. This is being executed using the Vande Bharat Trains and KAVACH systems.
QUESTION 12
He led the expedition to peacefully integrate Tawang into India. He was also instrumental in establishing essential military and security frameworks, such as the Sashastra Seema Bal and the Naga Regiment. By the time of the Tawang expedition, he had already made a name for himself in the Second World War.
Identify the personality in the above given lines.
(a) U Tirot Sing
(b) Gopinath Bordoloi
(c) Jairamdas Daulatram
(d) Bob Khathing
— Defence Minister Rajnath Singh last week inaugurated the Major Ralengnao ‘Bob’ Khathing Museum of Valour at Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh . The virtual event was held on October 31, the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, observed as National Unity Day, where Singh also inaugurated a statue of Patel.
— The legendary Bob Khathing led the expedition to peacefully integrate Tawang into India. He was also instrumental in establishing essential military and security frameworks, such as the Sashastra Seema Bal, Nagaland Armed Police, and the Naga Regiment.
— By the time of the Tawang expedition, Bob Khathing had already made a name for himself in the Second World War through his soldierly exploits. We take a look at the eventful career of the soldier and civil servant.
QUESTION 13
With reference to US Congress, consider the following statements:
1.The House of Representatives has the exclusive power to initiate revenue Bills, impeach federal officials, and elect the president in case of an Electoral tie while the Senate, on the other hand, has the sole power to approve or reject treaties, and confirm or deny the President’s appointments — such as that of Supreme Court justices — that require consent.
2.The House is headed by the Speaker of the House who is elected by representatives whereas the Vice President serves as President of the Senate and may cast the decisive vote in the event of a tie in the Senate.
— Suhas Subramanyam made history as the first Indian-American to be elected to the House of Representatives from Virginia , and the East Coast. As House Rep, he will represent Virginia’s 10th congressional district.
— The House of Representatives has the exclusive power to initiate revenue Bills, impeach federal officials, and elect the president in case of an Electoral tie while the Senate, on the other hand, has the sole power to approve or reject treaties, and confirm or deny the President’s appointments — such as that of Supreme Court justices — that require consent. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— The House is headed by the Speaker of the House who is elected by representatives whereas the Vice President serves as President of the Senate and may cast the decisive vote in the event of a tie in the Senate. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
QUESTION 14
What is Laika?
(a) the first living creature to orbit the earth
(b) the first test tube child to be born in the world
(c) the first AI news anchor in India
(d) None of the above
— On November 3, 1957, the Soviet Union launched ‘Sputnik 2’ and made history by sending the first-ever living creature to orbit Earth, a dog named Laika . The flight, which was meant to test the safety of space travel for humans, ended up being a one-way trip for Laika.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer
QUESTION 15
With reference to the ‘Animal Health Security Strengthening in India for Pandemic Preparedness and Response’ initiative consider the following statements:
1. The project was approved by the Pandemic Fund, created by G20 countries under Indian presidency in 2023.
2. The project will work with the help of three implementing agencies—Asian Development Bank (ADB), the World Bank, and the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).
— The central government recently launched a project to better monitor animal health for prevention of future pandemics .
— The ‘Animal Health Security Strengthening in India for Pandemic Preparedness and Response’ initiative was launched by the Union Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, Rajiv Ranjan Singh alias Lalan Singh, in New Delhi on October 25.
What is the project?
— The project aims to enhance the country’s capacity to “prevent, detect, and respond to animal health threats.”
— The project was approved by the Pandemic Fund, created by G20 countries under Indonesian presidency in 2022. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
— The basic purpose of the fund is to assist low-and middle-income countries in strengthening their capacities to identify, report and contain future pandemics.
— In its first investment round, the fund mobilised $2 billion. Proposals from various countries were invited for funding, and 350 expressions of interest (EoI) and 180 full proposals were received in the first call. Of these, the governing board of the Fund approved 19 grants in 37 countries. From India, the proposal by the Union animal husbandry department made it to the final list to receive a funding of $25 million.
What is the timeline for the project?
— The project will work with the help of three implementing agencies—Asian Development Bank (ADB), the World Bank, and the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). It is expected to be completed by August 2026. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Manas Srivastava is currently working as Senior Copy Editor with The Indian Express (digital) and leads a unique initiative of IE - UPSC Essentials. He majorly writes on UPSC, other competitive exams and education-related projects. In the past, Manas has represented India at the G-20 Youth Summit in Mexico. He is a former member of the Youth Council, GOI. A two-time topper/gold medallist in History (both in graduation and post-graduation) from Delhi University, he has mentored and taught UPSC aspirants for more than four years. His diverse role in The Indian Express consists of writing, editing, anchoring/ hosting, interviewing experts, and curating and simplifying news for the benefit of students. He hosts the YouTube talk show called ‘Art and Culture with Devdutt Pattanaik’ and a LIVE series on Instagram and YouTube called ‘You Ask We Answer’.His talks on ‘How to read a newspaper’ focus on newspaper reading as an essential habit for students. His articles and videos aim at finding solutions to the general queries of students and hence he believes in being students' editor, preparing them not just for any exam but helping them to become informed citizens. This is where he makes his teaching profession meet journalism. He is also the editor of UPSC Essentials' monthly magazine for the aspirants. He is a recipient of the Dip Chand Memorial Award, the Lala Ram Mohan Prize and Prof. Papiya Ghosh Memorial Prize for academic excellence. He was also awarded the University’s Post-Graduate Scholarship for pursuing M.A. in History where he chose to specialise in Ancient India due to his keen interest in Archaeology. He has also successfully completed a Certificate course on Women’s Studies by the Women’s Studies Development Centre, DU. As a part of N.S.S in the past, Manas has worked with national and international organisations and has shown keen interest and active participation in Social Service. He has led and been a part of projects involving areas such as gender sensitisation, persons with disability, helping slum dwellers, environment, adopting our heritage programme. He has also presented a case study on ‘Psychological stress among students’ at ICSQCC- Sri Lanka. As a compere for seminars and other events he likes to keep his orating hobby alive. His interests also lie in International Relations, Governance, Social issues, Essays and poetry. ... Read More
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One employee was killed and two were injured as a huge fire broke out at the Indian Oil Corporation (IOCL) refinery in Vadodara district’s Nandesari town on Monday afternoon following a blast in a benzene storage tank, said police. According to a statement from the IOCL, the fire broke out at around 3.30 pm in Tank number 68 — a 1,000 KL benzene storage tank.
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